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Michael Taylor's avatar

It’s a good question, but actually it doesn’t seem like it’s a notional ‘mark to market’ problem. Rather, if looks like it’s a funding/refunding problem. If the Bank funded a 0.4% asset short term and now finds itself refunding that holding at 4%, the losses get booked anyway. The fact that BoE is crystallising the losses now and is doing sensitivity analysis using Bank Rate assumptions strongly suggests the refunding is how the hit gets taken. Basically, it gets you one way or the other - (same maths, essentially).

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TMc's avatar

As you say, not sure of the maturity profile, but if they're holding the bonds to maturity, why does the capital loss matter in the interim? Or are the positions being actively traded and the losses are, therefore, crystallised?

Not sure of the accounting practices of the BoE or APF but financial statements, generally, wouldn't be impacted by unrealised gain/loss on a Held to Maturity bond? So why are they in this instance, unless the entire portfolio is marked to market and being actively turned over?

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